Did Paul Write The Book of Hebrews?
Under Covenant, the writer of Hebrews did not sign the book, therefore
we may never know who the human author was.
Under Grace,what we DO know is that Paul did not write it. We know this even though some bibles and "scholars" credit him with doing so. The
evidence becomes clear when we put away our prejudices and predilections and let God's word be our final
2 Thessalonians 3:17 The salutation of Paul with mine own hand, which
is the token in every epistle: so I write.
Paul promised that in "every epistle" he wrote (not in some, several,
or most) we would find his salutation.
What is a salutation?
Webster's defines it this way: "the word or phrase of greeting (as
Gentlemen or Dear Sir or Madam) that conventionally comes immediately before the body of a
With careful examination I believe that any sincere truth seeker will
come to see that Paul could not have possibly written the book of Hebrews. A Bible student will quickly see a
pattern in all of his letters that is absent from the book of Hebrews.
If you miss the obvious you will have to do so on
-Romans 1:1 Paul, a servant of Jesus Christ, called to be an
-1 Corinthians 1:1 Paul, called to be an apostle of Jesus
-2 Corinthians 1:1 Paul, an apostle of Jesus Christ by the will of
-Galatians 1:1 Paul, an apostle, (not of men, neither by man, but by
-Ephesians 1:1 Paul, an apostle of Jesus Christ by the will of
-Philippians 1:1 Paul and Timotheus, the servants of Jesus
-Colossians 1:1 Paul, an apostle of Jesus Christ by the will of
-1 Thessalonians 1:1 Paul, and Silvanus, and Timotheus, unto the
church of the Thessalonians which is in God the Father and in the Lord Jesus Christ;...
-2 Thessalonians 1:1 Paul, and Silvanus, and Timotheus, unto the
church of the Thessalonians in God our Father and the Lord Jesus Christ;...
-1 Timothy 1:1 Paul, an apostle of Jesus Christ by the commandment of
God our Saviour,...
-2 Timothy 1:1 Paul, an apostle of Jesus Christ by the will of
-Titus 1:1 Paul, a servant of God, and an apostle of Jesus
-Philemon 1:1 Paul, a prisoner of Jesus Christ, and Timothy our
Did you see it? Some "scholars" seemed to have missed it but you don't
have to. You can do better.
After examining all thirteen of Paul's salutations we found that all open with his
name, every one. He promised that "every epistle" he wrote would be marked by his salutation
and they are.
All of his greetings include two very important names, both "Paul" and
With that in mind, compare Paul's greetings with the greeting found in
the book of Hebrews.
Hebrews 1:1 God, who at sundry times and in divers manners spake in
time past unto the fathers by the prophets,
Do what? "sundry times" and "divers manners"? The "fathers by the
Play detective for a moment and ask yourself, does this look anything
like Paul's salutation? Is there even a close resemblance?
Where is "Paul"? Where is "Jesus Christ"? Those two very important
names are missing.
Moreover, not only is Paul's name missing from verse one, it is absent from
the entire book!
In our pursuit of truth our investigation has lead us to conclude that
the book of Hebrews was written to the Acts 2 Pentecostal church that had previously been "scattered"
following a "great persecution" (Acts 8:1, James 1:1, 1 Peter 1:1).
This scattered remnant of "the church which was at Jerusalem;" is who
Jesus had earlier promised to give the earthly kingdom to (Luke 12:32).
Hebrews 1:2 Hath in these last days spoken unto us by his Son, whom he
hath appointed heir of all things, by whom also he made the worlds;
"in these last days" refers to the prophetic "last days" of Acts 2:17,
and as we just read, the author of Hebrews stated that something was "spoken unto us."
This presents a problem to those claiming Paul authored Hebrews, considering
that at the time of Pentecost, Paul was still unsaved Saul.
What about Hebrews 2:3? When we compare scripture with scripture this
one verse ALONE disqualifies Paul as the author.
Question: Was Paul an apostle? Answer: Yes. Could the author of
Hebrews have been an apostle? Answer: No.
Examine carefully what the Hebrew writer wrote: "How shall we escape,
if we neglect so great salvation; which at the first began to be spoken by the Lord, and was confirmed unto
us by them that heard him;"
Notice that what was "spoken by the Lord"... "was confirmed unto us by
them that heard him;"
If we put this in its proper order it goes like this: Jesus' spoken
words, (first) the apostles that heard him (second) and the writer of Hebrews (third).
The Hebrew writer had never heard or even been with the Lord, and is
why he had to have the words of Christ confirmed to him "by them that heard him;".
In light of that, the Hebrew author could not have been an
Acts 1:22-26 Beginning from the baptism of John, unto that same day
that he was taken up from us, must one be ordained to be a witness with us of his resurrection...... That he
may take part of this ministry and apostleship, from which Judas by transgression fell, that he might go to
his own place. And they gave forth their lots; and the lot fell upon Matthias; and he was numbered with the
What was a qualification of an apostle? Someone was "ordained to be a
witness... of his resurrection".
It is clear that the Hebrew author does not qualify for apostleship.
But Paul who had "seen Jesus Christ our Lord?" did.
1 Corinthians 9:1 Am I not an apostle? am I not free? have I not seen
Jesus Christ our Lord? are not ye my work in the Lord?
Paul was an apostle but the author of Hebrews was clearly
A simple and helpful exercise is to compare Hebrews 2:3 with what Paul
wrote to the Galatians. We find more valuable evidence here.
"But I certify you, brethren, that the gospel which was preached of me
is not after man." (Galatians 1:11).
Did you catch it? Remember I said "this one verse ALONE disqualifies
Paul as the author."
Don't miss that the writer of Hebrews says that what was "spoken by
the Lord"... "was confirmed unto us by them that heard him;" BUT, Paul said what he preached was "not after
So is it "confirmed... by them that heard him;" (men) or "not after
The "them that heard him" did not confirm anything for Paul, and is
why he wrote "not after man".
Could it be any clearer?
The Lord spoke DIRECTLY to Paul, but INDIRECTLY to the Hebrew
The Hebrew author had the Lords words “confirmed” to him “by them that
heard him;” but Paul was not “taught by men,” but heard directly from the Lord himself.
"For I neither received it of man, neither was I taught it, but by the
revelation of Jesus Christ." (Galatians 1:12).
Paul, unlike the writer of Hebrews had nothing "confirmed" to him by men. What he
wrote was revealed to him by Christ himself. The Hebrew writer was taught by men. By "them that heard him".
When we compare scripture with scripture instead of preacher with
preacher, the darkened glass becomes clear allowing us to come face to face with truth.
And the truth is, this single verse disqualifies Paul as the
Hebrews 2:4 God also bearing them witness, both with signs and
wonders, and with divers miracles, and gifts of the Holy Ghost, according to his own will?
Again, sounds like the Acts 2 Pentecostals to me, what say
Hebrews 2:5 For unto the angels hath he not put in subjection the
world to come, whereof we speak.
This one verse sums up the intent the book of Hebrews. Hebrews was
written for-Hebrews, and concerns tribulational matters they will be faced with in the "world to
--To the contrary--
The "fellowship of the mystery" deals with us the "new creature" ("the
church, Which is his body,") and concerns matters we face in this "present evil world" (Galatians
The "world to come" and "this present evil world" are not the
The Hebrew "world to come" can be found in prophecy, Paul's "church,
Which is his body," can NOT.
The "world to come" is Israel's "Thy kingdom come" and will be on
earth, but we which are his body are going to "heavenly places".
Hebrews 2:10 For it became him, for whom are all things, and by whom
are all things, in bringing many sons unto glory, to make the captain of their salvation perfect through
Don't miss "many sons". This speaks of Christ giving his life to be a
"ransom for many" (Matthew 20:28).
However, we now know by reading Paul's "revelation of the mystery"
that Christ "gave himself a ransom for all" (1 Timothy 2:6).
Hebrews 3:1 Wherefore, holy brethren, partakers of the heavenly
calling, consider the Apostle and High Priest of our profession, Christ Jesus;
Where in Paul's letters can we find even one mention of the "new
creature" "church, Which is his body," having Priest?
Israel having "High Priest" suggest that they had lower priest, but we
have NO priest.
Hebrews 3:6 But Christ as a son over his own house; whose house are
we, if we hold fast the confidence and the rejoicing of the hope firm unto the end.
This "house;" is the "spiritual house, an holy priesthood," mentioned
in Peters first epistle to the "scattered". They were that "chosen generation, a royal priesthood, an holy
nation, a peculiar people;" the "house of Israel" and not us. And "if" (conditional) they held "fast the
confidence... firm unto the end" They would receive that "grace that is to be brought... at the revelation of
Jesus Christ;" (when Christ returns).
Hebrews 3:9 When your fathers tempted me, proved me, and saw my works
"your fathers" refers to Abraham, Isaac, Jacob etc... and the "forty
years" points to the covenant "children of Israel" who wandered in the wilderness forty years and were never
able to enter into God's rest (Psalm 95:8-11).
Hebrews 3:14 For we are made partakers of Christ, if we hold the
beginning of our confidence stedfast unto the end;
Never forget, the word "if" is a covenant word. A covenant is like a
contract with conditions. The condition here is that they will be "partakers of Christ, if" they "hold" on
"steadfast unto the end;".
Hebrews 4:2 For unto us was the gospel preached, as well as unto them:
but the word preached did not profit them, not being mixed with faith in them that heard
"unto us was the gospel preached, as well as unto
Here, the Hebrew author makes it clear that the gospel they heard was
the same gospel that had been preached to those in the wilderness. "unto us" "unto them:".
What gospel? The "gospel of the kingdom". The good news about them
acquiring the land they were promised (Exodus 12:25) "if" they held out and endured :steadfast unto the
The evidence clearly suggest that not only is the Hebrew author not
Paul, the Hebrew DOCTRINE doesn't match Paul's. However there are similarities between what's written to the
Hebrews and what Paul wrote to "the body of Christ". For example, Hebrews 4:10-11.
10 For he that is entered into his rest, he also hath ceased from his
own works, as God did from his.
11 Let us labour therefore to enter into that rest, lest any man fall
after the same example of unbelief.
So while the verses are speaking of entering into rest, the house of
Israel, and the house of Judah, have a very different way of getting there. Their rest involves "labour".
Please get this. This is a part of THEIR (not our) new covenant.
Paul, when writing to-us puts it this way: "Now he that planteth and he that watereth are one: and every man
shall receive his own reward according to his own labour." (1 Corinthians 3:8).
You see that? The writer of Hebrews tells them that their "labour" is
a necessity for entering into rest. But our apostle Paul tells us that OUR "labour" is done for a "reward"
and not for rest.
There is something coming in the future for all saved people called
the "judgment seat of Christ" (2 Corinthians 5:10). A place where every believer will receive the things done
in his or her body according to their "labour".
As saved members of the body of Christ, we've ALREADY entered into
that rest by faith alone in the finished cross work and resurrection of Christ. Not so for those in the "if"
new covenant with God. This is why the apostle Peter tells them to "Repent ye therefore, and be converted,
that your sins may be blotted out, when the times of refreshing shall come from the presence of the Lord;"
Clearly they are waiting for a future event when they will be back in
the "presence of the Lord;" and it's at that time that they will have their sins blotted out and be "born
Presently, Israel is in a falling state and God is not dealing with
them as a nation but rather dealing with us the Gentiles (Romans 11:11). For now they are "Lo-ammi" (Hosea
1:9) "not my people". But following the "fulness" of the Gentile church body, Israel's partial "blindness" is
removed and they will once again be his people.
Hebrews 8:10 For this is the covenant that I will make with the house
of Israel after those days, saith the Lord; I will put my laws into their mind, and write them in their
hearts: and I will be to them a God, and they shall be to me a people:.
Now, one last thing before we go.
Some are troubled by a passage found in the second epistle of Peter.
In chapter 3 verse 15 he wrote: "And account that the longsuffering of our Lord is salvation; even as our
beloved brother Paul also according to the wisdom given unto him hath written unto you;"
Some use this verse as “proof” that Paul wrote the book of Hebrews.
Their claim is, since Peter wrote to Hebrews, and uses the phrase "Paul hath written unto you", that it must
have been the book of Hebrews that he was referring to. However, in their rush to make Paul the author, they
missed a very important piece of evidence.
In Colossians chapter 4, verses 15-16 Paul wrote: "Salute the brethren
which are in Laodicea, and Nymphas, and the church which is in his house. And when this epistle is read among
you, cause that it be read also in the church of the Laodiceans; and that ye likewise read the epistle from
There is our answer.
Paul told the Colossians that they needed to "read the epistle from Laodicea" an
epistle NOT found in the Bible. Thus showing that not all of Paul's writings are in the canon of
scripture. So just because Peter said his audience had read the writings of Paul, does NOT mean it was the
book of Hebrews.
Perhaps it was "in the church of the Laodiceans" where Peter's Hebrew
readers were when they heard Paul's letter being read. Being unfamiliar with Paul's gospel, they would
naturally come across some things that were “hard to be understood,” (2 Peter 3:16).
Fact is, it could have been any number of places where they
encountered one of Paul's letters. We simply don't know, so lets stick to what we DO know.
What we DO know is there is no evidence to support Paul as being the
author of Hebrews.
What we DO know is Christ appointed Paul to be the apostle of the
Gentiles, (Romans 11:13) and NOT of the Hebrews.
Crediting Paul as being the author of Hebrews has only caused
confusion and we all know who the author of that is (1 Corinthians 14:33).
As mentioned earlier, in the first verse of every one of Paul's
letters he included both "Paul" and "Jesus Christ". Furthermore, he also wrote the words "grace" and "peace"
in the first chapter of all 13 of his letters, while neither the word "grace" NOR "peace" is found in
the first chapter of Hebrews.
To jump to the conclusion that Paul wrote Hebrews, one would have to
perform scriptural gymnastics and abandon sound reasoning.
After weighing and evaluating all available evidence, I submit that
the writer of Hebrews remains unknown.
What IS known is Paul did not write
"The fact that an opinion is widely held is not
evidence that it is not utterly absurd."
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